Foundation of Professional Nursing Practice 1. The nurse In-charge in labor and delivery unit administered a dose of terbutaline to a client without checking the client’s pulse. The standard that would be used to determine if the nurse was negligent is: a. The physician’s orders. b. The action of a clinical nurse specialist who is recognized expert in the field. c. The statement in the drug literature about administration of terbutaline. d. The actions of a reasonably prudent nurse with similar education and experience. 2.
Nurse Trish is caring for a female client with a history of GI bleeding, sickle cell disease, and a platelet count of 22,000/? l. The female client is dehydrated and receiving dextrose 5% in half-normal saline solution at 150 ml/hr. The client complains of severe bone pain and is scheduled to receive a dose of morphine sulfate. In administering the medication, Nurse Trish should avoid which route? a. I. Vc. Oral b. I. Md. S. C 3. Dr. Garcia writes the following order for the client who has been recently admitted “Digoxin . 125 mg P. O. once daily. To prevent a dosage error, how should the nurse document this order onto the medication administration record? a. “Digoxin . 1250 mg P. O. once daily” b. “Digoxin 0. 1250 mg P. O. once daily” c. “Digoxin 0. 125 mg P. O. once daily” d. “Digoxin . 125 mg P. O. once daily” 4. A newly admitted female client was diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis. Which nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority? a. Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion related to venous congestion. b. Risk for injury related to edema. c. Excess fluid volume related to peripheral vascular disease. . Impaired gas exchange related to increased blood flow. 5. Nurse Betty is assigned to the following clients. The client that the nurse would see first after endorsement? a. A 34 year-old post operative appendectomy client of five hours who is complaining of pain. b. A 44 year-old myocardial infarction (MI) client who is complaining of nausea. c. A 26 year-old client admitted for dehydration whose intravenous (IV) has infiltrated. d. A 63 year-old post operative’s abdominal hysterectomy client of three days whose incisional dressing is saturated with serosanguinous fluid. 6.
Nurse Gail places a client in a four-point restraint following orders from the physician. The client care plan should include: a. Assess temperature frequently. b. Provide diversional activities. c. Check circulation every 15-30 minutes. d. Socialize with other patients once a shift. 7. A male client who has severe burns is receiving H2 receptor antagonist therapy. The nurse In-charge knows the purpose of this therapy is to: a. Prevent stress ulcer b. Block prostaglandin synthesis c. Facilitate protein synthesis. d. Enhance gas exchange 8. The doctor orders hourly urine output measurement for a postoperative male client.
The nurse Trish records the following amounts of output for 2 consecutive hours: 8 a. m. : 50 ml; 9 a. m. : 60 ml. Based on these amounts, which action should the nurse take? a. Increase the I. V. fluid infusion rate b. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter c. Notify the physician d. Continue to monitor and record hourly urine output 9. Tony, a basketball player twist his right ankle while playing on the court and seeks care for ankle pain and swelling. After the nurse applies ice to the ankle for 30 minutes, which statement by Tony suggests that ice application has been effective? a. My ankle looks less swollen now”. b. “My ankle feels warm”. c. “My ankle appears redder now”. d. “I need something stronger for pain relief” 10. The physician prescribes a loop diuretic for a client. When administering this drug, the nurse anticipates that the client may develop which electrolyte imbalance? a. Hypernatremia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hypokalemia d. Hypervolemia 11. She finds out that some managers have benevolent-authoritative style of management. Which of the following behaviors will she exhibit most likely? a. Have condescending trust and confidence in their subordinates. b. Gives economic and ego awards. . Communicates downward to staffs. d. Allows decision making among subordinates. 12. Nurse Amy is aware that the following is true about functional nursing a. Provides continuous, coordinated and comprehensive nursing services. b. One-to-one nurse patient ratio. c. Emphasize the use of group collaboration. d. Concentrates on tasks and activities. 13. Which type of medication order might read “Vitamin K 10 mg I. M. daily ? 3 days? ” a. Single order b. Standard written order c. Standing order d. Stat order 14. A female client with a fecal impaction frequently exhibits which clinical manifestation? . Increased appetite b. Loss of urge to defecate c. Hard, brown, formed stools d. Liquid or semi-liquid stools 15. Nurse Linda prepares to perform an otoscopic examination on a female client. For proper visualization, the nurse should position the client’s ear by: a. Pulling the lobule down and back b. Pulling the helix up and forward c. Pulling the helix up and back d. Pulling the lobule down and forward 16. Which instruction should nurse Tom give to a male client who is having external radiation therapy: a. Protect the irritated skin from sunlight. b. Eat 3 to 4 hours before treatment. c.
Wash the skin over regularly. d. Apply lotion or oil to the radiated area when it is red or sore. 17. In assisting a female client for immediate surgery, the nurse In-charge is aware that she should: a. Encourage the client to void following preoperative medication. b. Explore the client’s fears and anxieties about the surgery. c. Assist the client in removing dentures and nail polish. d. Encourage the client to drink water prior to surgery. 18. A male client is admitted and diagnosed with acute pancreatitis after a holiday celebration of excessive food and alcohol. Which assessment finding reflects this diagnosis? . Blood pressure above normal range. b. Presence of crackles in both lung fields. c. Hyperactive bowel sounds d. Sudden onset of continuous epigastric and back pain. 19. Which dietary guidelines are important for nurse Oliver to implement in caring for the client with burns? a. Provide high-fiber, high-fat diet b. Provide high-protein, high-carbohydrate diet. c. Monitor intake to prevent weight gain. d. Provide ice chips or water intake. 20. Nurse Hazel will administer a unit of whole blood, which priority information should the nurse have about the client? a. Blood pressure and pulse rate. b.
Height and weight. c. Calcium and potassium levels d. Hgb and Hct levels. 21. Nurse Michelle witnesses a female client sustain a fall and suspects that the leg may be broken. The nurse takes which priority action? a. Takes a set of vital signs. b. Call the radiology department for X-ray. c. Reassure the client that everything will be alright. d. Immobilize the leg before moving the client. 22. A male client is being transferred to the nursing unit for admission after receiving a radium implant for bladder cancer. The nurse in-charge would take which priority action in the care of this client? a.
Place client on reverse isolation. b. Admit the client into a private room. c. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods. d. Encourage family and friends to visit. 23. A newly admitted female client was diagnosed with agranulocytosis. The nurse formulates which priority nursing diagnosis? a. Constipation b. Diarrhea c. Risk for infection d. Deficient knowledge 24. A male client is receiving total parenteral nutrition suddenly demonstrates signs and symptoms of an air embolism. What is the priority action by the nurse? a. Notify the physician. b. Place the client on the left side in the Trendelenburg position. . Place the client in high-Fowlers position. d. Stop the total parenteral nutrition. 25. Nurse May attends an educational conference on leadership styles. The nurse is sitting with a nurse employed at a large trauma center who states that the leadership style at the trauma center is task-oriented and directive. The nurse determines that the leadership style used at the trauma center is: a. Autocratic. b. Laissez-faire. c. Democratic. d. Situational 26. The physician orders DS 500 cc with KCl 10 mEq/liter at 30 cc/hr. The nurse in-charge is going to hang a 500 cc bag.
KCl is supplied 20 mEq/10 cc. How many cc’s of KCl will be added to the IV solution? a. .5 ccc. 1. 5 cc b. 5 ccd. 2. 5 cc 27. A child of 10 years old is to receive 400 cc of IV fluid in an 8 hour shift. The IV drip factor is 60. The IV rate that will deliver this amount is: a. 50 cc/ hour b. 55 cc/ hour c. 24 cc/ hour d. 66 cc/ hour 28. The nurse is aware that the most important nursing action when a client returns from surgery is: a. Assess the IV for type of fluid and rate of flow. b. Assess the client for presence of pain. c. Assess the Foley catheter for patency and urine output d.
Assess the dressing for drainage. 29. Which of the following vital sign assessments that may indicate cardiogenic shock after myocardial infarction? a. BP – 80/60, Pulse – 110 irregular b. BP – 90/50, Pulse – 50 regular c. BP – 130/80, Pulse – 100 regular d. BP – 180/100, Pulse – 90 irregular 30. Which is the most appropriate nursing action in obtaining a blood pressure measurement? a. Take the proper equipment, place the client in a comfortable position, and record the appropriate information in the client’s chart. b. Measure the client’s arm, if you are not sure of the size of cuff to use. c.
Have the client recline or sit comfortably in a chair with the forearm at the level of the heart. d. Document the measurement, which extremity was used, and the position that the client was in during the measurement. 31. Asking the questions to determine if the person understands the health teaching provided by the nurse would be included during which step of the nursing process? a. Assessmen t b. Evaluation c. Implementation d. Planning and goals 32. Which of the following item is considered the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs? . Diagnostic test results b. Biographical date c. History of present illness d. Physical examination 33. In preventing the development of an external rotation deformity of the hip in a client who must remain in bed for any period of time, the most appropriate nursing action would be to use: a. Trochanter roll extending from the crest of the ileum to the midthigh. b. Pillows under the lower legs. c. Footboard d. Hip-abductor pillow 34. Which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a. Stage Ic. Stage III b. Stage IId. Stage IV 5. When the method of wound healing is one in which wound edges are not surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored by granulations, the wound healing is termed a. Second intention healing b. Primary intention healing c. Third intention healing d. First intention healing 36. An 80-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Nurse Oliver learns that the client lives alone and hasn’t been eating or drinking. When assessing him for dehydration, nurse Oliver would expect to find: a. Hypothermia b. Hypertension c.
Distended neck veins d. Tachycardia 37. The physician prescribes meperidine (Demerol), 75 mg I. M. every 4 hours as needed, to control a client’s postoperative pain. The package insert is “Meperidine, 100 mg/ml. ” How many milliliters of meperidine should the client receive? a. 0. 75c. 0. 5 b. 0. 6d. 0. 25 38. A male client with diabetes mellitus is receiving insulin. Which statement correctly describes an insulin unit? a. It’s a common measurement in the metric system. b. It’s the basis for solids in the avoirdupois system. c. It’s the smallest measurement in the apothecary system. . It’s a measure of effect, not a standard measure of weight or quantity. 39. Nurse Oliver measures a client’s temperature at 102° F. What is the equivalent Centigrade temperature? a. 40. 1 °Cc. 48 °C b. 38. 9 °Cd. 38 °C 40. The nurse is assessing a 48-year-old client who has come to the physician’s office for his annual physical exam. One of the first physical signs of aging is: a. Accepting limitations while developing assets. b. Increasing loss of muscle tone. c. Failing eyesight, especially close vision. d. Having more frequent aches and pains. 41.
The physician inserts a chest tube into a female client to treat a pneumothorax. The tube is connected to water-seal drainage. The nurse in-charge can prevent chest tube air leaks by: a. Checking and taping all connections. b. Checking patency of the chest tube. c. Keeping the head of the bed slightly elevated. d. Keeping the chest drainage system below the level of the chest. 42. Nurse Trish must verify the client’s identity before administering medication. She is aware that the safest way to verify identity is to: a. Check the client’s identification band. b.
Ask the client to state his name. c. State the client’s name out loud and wait a client to repeat it. d. Check the room number and the client’s name on the bed. 43. The physician orders dextrose 5 % in water, 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours. The I. V. tubing delivers 15 drops/ml. Nurse John should run the I. V. infusion at a rate of: a. 30 drops/minute b. 32 drops/minute c. 20 drops/minute d. 18 drops/minute 44. If a central venous catheter becomes disconnected accidentally, what should the nurse in-charge do immediately? a. Clamp the catheter b. Call another nurse c. Call the physician . Apply a dry sterile dressing to the site. 45. A female client was recently admitted. She has fever, weight loss, and watery diarrhea is being admitted to the facility. While assessing the client, Nurse Hazel inspects the client’s abdomen and notice that it is slightly concave. Additional assessment should proceed in which order: a. Palpation, auscultation, and percussion. b. Percussion, palpation, and auscultation. c. Palpation, percussion, and auscultation. d. Auscultation, percussion, and palpation. 46. Nurse Betty is assessing tactile fremitus in a client with pneumonia.
For this examination, nurse Betty should use the: a. Fingertips b. Finger pads c. Dorsal surface of the hand d. Ulnar surface of the hand 47. Which type of evaluation occurs continuously throughout the teaching and learning process? a. Summative b. Informative c. Formative d. Retrospective 48. A 45 year old client, has no family history of breast cancer or other risk factors for this disease. Nurse John should instruct her to have mammogram how often? a. Twice per year b. Once per year c. Every 2 years d. Once, to establish baseline 49. A male client has the following arterial blood gas values: pH 7. 0; Pao2 89 mmHg; Paco2 50 mmHg; and HCO3 26mEq/L. Based on these values, Nurse Patricia should expect which condition? a. Respiratory acidosis b. Respiratory alkalosis c. Metabolic acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis 50. Nurse Len refers a female client with terminal cancer to a local hospice. What is the goal of this referral? a. To help the client find appropriate treatment options. b. To provide support for the client and family in coping with terminal illness. c. To ensure that the client gets counseling regarding health care costs. d. To teach the client and family about cancer and its treatment. 1. When caring for a male client with a 3-cm stage I pressure ulcer on the coccyx, which of the following actions can the nurse institute independently? a. Massaging the area with an astringent every 2 hours. b. Applying an antibiotic cream to the area three times per day. c. Using normal saline solution to clean the ulcer and applying a protective dressing as necessary. d. Using a povidone-iodine wash on the ulceration three times per day. 52. Nurse Oliver must apply an elastic bandage to a client’s ankle and calf. He should apply the bandage beginning at the client’s: a. Knee b. Ankle c.
Lower thigh d. Foot 53. A 10 year old child with type 1 diabetes develops diabetic ketoacidosis and receives a continuous insulin infusion. Which condition represents the greatest risk to this child? a. Hypernatremia b. Hypokalemia c. Hyperphosphatemia d. Hypercalcemia 54. Nurse Len is administering sublingual nitrglycerin (Nitrostat) to the newly admitted client. Immediately afterward, the client may experience: a. Throbbing headache or dizziness b. Nervousness or paresthesia. c. Drowsiness or blurred vision. d. Tinnitus or diplopia. 55. Nurse Michelle hears the alarm sound on the telemetry monitor.
The nurse quickly looks at the monitor and notes that a client is in a ventricular tachycardia. The nurse rushes to the client’s room. Upon reaching the client’s bedside, the nurse would take which action first? a. Prepare for cardioversion b. Prepare to defibrillate the client c. Call a code d. Check the client’s level of consciousness 56. Nurse Hazel is preparing to ambulate a female client. The best and the safest position for the nurse in assisting the client is to stand: a. On the unaffected side of the client. b. On the affected side of the client. c. In front of the client. d. Behind the client. 7. Nurse Janah is monitoring the ongoing care given to the potential organ donor who has been diagnosed with brain death. The nurse determines that the standard of care had been maintained if which of the following data is observed? a. Urine output: 45 ml/hr b. Capillary refill: 5 seconds c. Serum pH: 7. 32 d. Blood pressure: 90/48 mmHg 58. Nurse Amy has an order to obtain a urinalysis from a male client with an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse avoids which of the following, which contaminate the specimen? a. Wiping the port with an alcohol swab before inserting the syringe. b.
Aspirating a sample from the port on the drainage bag. c. Clamping the tubing of the drainage bag. d. Obtaining the specimen from the urinary drainage bag. 59. Nurse Meredith is in the process of giving a client a bed bath. In the middle of the procedure, the unit secretary calls the nurse on the intercom to tell the nurse that there is an emergency phone call. The appropriate nursing action is to: a. Immediately walk out of the client’s room and answer the phone call. b. Cover the client, place the call light within reach, and answer the phone call. c. Finish the bed bath before answering the phone call. d.
Leave the client’s door open so the client can be monitored and the nurse can answer the phone call. 60. Nurse Janah is collecting a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity testing from a client who has a productive cough. Nurse Janah plans to implement which intervention to obtain the specimen? a. Ask the client to expectorate a small amount of sputum into the emesis basin. b. Ask the client to obtain the specimen after breakfast. c. Use a sterile plastic container for obtaining the specimen. d. Provide tissues for expectoration and obtaining the specimen. 61. Nurse Ron is observing a male client using a walker.
The nurse determines that the client is using the walker correctly if the client: a. Puts all the four points of the walker flat on the floor, puts weight on the hand pieces, and then walks into it. b. Puts weight on the hand pieces, moves the walker forward, and then walks into it. c. Puts weight on the hand pieces, slides the walker forward, and then walks into it. d. Walks into the walker, puts weight on the hand pieces, and then puts all four points of the walker flat on the floor. 62. Nurse Amy has documented an entry regarding client care in the client’s medical record.
When checking the entry, the nurse realizes that incorrect information was documented. How does the nurse correct this error? a. Erases the error and writes in the correct information. b. Uses correction fluid to cover up the incorrect information and writes in the correct information. c. Draws one line to cross out the incorrect information and then initials the change. d. Covers up the incorrect information completely using a black pen and writes in the correct information 63. Nurse Ron is assisting with transferring a client from the operating room table to a stretcher.
To provide safety to the client, the nurse should: a. Moves the client rapidly from the table to the stretcher. b. Uncovers the client completely before transferring to the stretcher. c. Secures the client safety belts after transferring to the stretcher. d. Instructs the client to move self from the table to the stretcher. 64. Nurse Myrna is providing instructions to a nursing assistant assigned to give a bed bath to a client who is on contact precautions. Nurse Myrna instructs the nursing assistant to use which of the following protective items when giving bed bath? a. Gown and goggles . Gown and gloves c. Gloves and shoe protectors d. Gloves and goggles 65. Nurse Oliver is caring for a client with impaired mobility that occurred as a result of a stroke. The client has right sided arm and leg weakness. The nurse would suggest that the client use which of the following assistive devices that would provide the best stability for ambulating? a. Crutches b. Single straight-legged cane c. Quad cane d. Walker 66. A male client with a right pleural effusion noted on a chest X-ray is being prepared for thoracentesis. The client experiences severe dizziness when sitting upright.
To provide a safe environment, the nurse assists the client to which position for the procedure? a. Prone with head turned toward the side supported by a pillow. b. Sims’ position with the head of the bed flat. c. Right side-lying with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees. d. Left side-lying with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees. 67. Nurse John develops methods for data gathering. Which of the following criteria of a good instrument refers to the ability of the instrument to yield the same results upon its repeated administration? a. Validity b. Specificity c. Sensitivity d. Reliability 68.
Harry knows that he has to protect the rights of human research subjects. Which of the following actions of Harry ensures anonymity? a. Keep the identities of the subject secret b. Obtain informed consent c. Provide equal treatment to all the subjects of the study. d. Release findings only to the participants of the study 69. Patient’s refusal to divulge information is a limitation because it is beyond the control of Tifanny”. What type of research is appropriate for this study? a. Descriptive- correlational b. Experiment c. Quasi-experiment d. Historical 70. Nurse Ronald is aware that the best tool for data gathering is? . Interview schedule b. Questionnaire c. Use of laboratory data d. Observation 71. Monica is aware that there are times when only manipulation of study variables is possible and the elements of control or randomization are not attendant. Which type of research is referred to this? a. Field study b. Quasi-experiment c. Solomon-Four group design d. Post-test only design 72. Cherry notes down ideas that were derived from the description of an investigation written by the person who conducted it. Which type of reference source refers to this? a. Footnote b. Bibliography c. Primary source d. Endnotes 73.
When Nurse Trish is providing care to his patient, she must remember that her duty is bound not to do doing any action that will cause the patient harm. This is the meaning of the bioethical principle: a. Non-maleficence b. Beneficence c. Justice d. Solidarity 74. When a nurse in-charge causes an injury to a female patient and the injury caused becomes the proof of the negligent act, the presence of the injury is said to exemplify the principle of: a. Force majeure b. Respondeat superior c. Res ipsa loquitor d. Holdover doctrine 75. Nurse Myrna is aware that the Board of Nursing has quasi-judicial power.
An example of this power is: a. The Board can issue rules and regulations that will govern the practice of nursing b. The Board can investigate violations of the nursing law and code of ethics c. The Board can visit a school applying for a permit in collaboration with CHED d. The Board prepares the board examinations 76. When the license of nurse Krina is revoked, it means that she: a. Is no longer allowed to practice the profession for the rest of her life b. Will never have her/his license re-issued since it has been revoked c. May apply for re-issuance of his/her license based on certain conditions stipulated in RA 9173 d.
Will remain unable to practice professional nursing 77. Ronald plans to conduct a research on the use of a new method of pain assessment scale. Which of the following is the second step in the conceptualizing phase of the research process? a. Formulating the research hypothesis b. Review related literature c. Formulating and delimiting the research problem d. Design the theoretical and conceptual framework 78. The leader of the study knows that certain patients who are in a specialized research setting tend to respond psychologically to the conditions of the study. This referred to as : a. Cause and effect b. Hawthorne effect . Halo effect d. Horns effect 79. Mary finally decides to use judgment sampling on her research. Which of the following actions of is correct? a. Plans to include whoever is there during his study. b. Determines the different nationality of patients frequently admitted and decides to get representations samples from each. c. Assigns numbers for each of the patients, place these in a fishbowl and draw 10 from it. d. Decides to get 20 samples from the admitted patients 80. The nursing theorist who developed transcultural nursing theory is: a. Florence Nightingale b. Madeleine Leininger c. Albert Moore d. Sr. Callista Roy 81.
Marion is aware that the sampling method that gives equal chance to all units in the population to get picked is: a. Random b. Accidental c. Quota d. Judgment 82. John plans to use a Likert Scale to his study to determine the: a. Degree of agreement and disagreement b. Compliance to expected standards c. Level of satisfaction d. Degree of acceptance 83. Which of the following theory addresses the four modes of adaptation? a. Madeleine Leininger b. Sr. Callista Roy c. Florence Nightingale d. Jean Watson 84. Ms. Garcia is responsible to the number of personnel reporting to her. This principle refers to: a. Span of control b. Unity of command . Downward communication d. Leader 85. Ensuring that there is an informed consent on the part of the patient before a surgery is done, illustrates the bioethical principle of: a. Beneficence b. Autonomy c. Veracity d. Non-maleficence 86. Nurse Reese is teaching a female client with peripheral vascular disease about foot care; Nurse Reese should include which instruction? a. Avoid wearing cotton socks. b. Avoid using a nail clipper to cut toenails. c. Avoid wearing canvas shoes. d. Avoid using cornstarch on feet. 87. A client is admitted with multiple pressure ulcers. When developing the client’s diet plan, the nurse should include: a.
Fresh orange slices b. Steamed broccoli c. Ice cream d. Ground beef patties 88. The nurse prepares to administer a cleansing enema. What is the most common client position used for this procedure? a. Lithotomy b. Supine c. Prone d. Sims’ left lateral 89. Nurse Marian is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Arrange for typing and cross matching of the client’s blood. b. Compare the client’s identification wristband with the tag on the unit of blood. c. Start an I. V. infusion of normal saline solution. d. Measure the client’s vital signs. 90.
A 65 years old male client requests his medication at 9 p. m. instead of 10 p. m. so that he can go to sleep earlier. Which type of nursing intervention is required? a. Independent b. Dependent c. Interdependent d. Intradependent 91. A female client is to be discharged from an acute care facility after treatment for right leg thrombophlebitis. The Nurse Betty notes that the client’s leg is pain-free, without redness or edema. The nurse’s actions reflect which step of the nursing process? a. Assessment b. Diagnosis c. Implementation d. Evaluation 92. Nursing care for a female client includes removing elastic stockings once per day.
The Nurse Betty is aware that the rationale for this intervention? a. To increase blood flow to the heart b. To observe the lower extremities c. To allow the leg muscles to stretch and relax d. To permit veins in the legs to fill with blood. 93. Which nursing intervention takes highest priority when caring for a newly admitted client who’s receiving a blood transfusion? a. Instructing the client to report any itching, swelling, or dyspnea. b. Informing the client that the transfusion usually take 1 . to 2 hours. c. Documenting blood administration in the client care record. d. Assessing the client’s vital signs when the transfusion ends. 94.
A male client complains of abdominal discomfort and nausea while receiving tube feedings. Which intervention is most appropriate for this problem? a. Give the feedings at room temperature. b. Decrease the rate of feedings and the concentration of the formula. c. Place the client in semi-Fowler’s position while feeding. d. Change the feeding container every 12 hours. 95. Nurse Patricia is reconstituting a powdered medication in a vial. After adding the solution to the powder, she nurse should: a. Do nothing. b. Invert the vial and let it stand for 3 to 5 minutes. c. Shake the vial vigorously. d. Roll the vial gently between the palms. 96.
Which intervention should the nurse Trish use when administering oxygen by face mask to a female client? a. Secure the elastic band tightly around the client’s head. b. Assist the client to the semi-Fowler position if possible. c. Apply the face mask from the client’s chin up over the nose. d. Loosen the connectors between the oxygen equipment and humidifier. 97. The maximum transfusion time for a unit of packed red blood cells (RBCs) is: a. 6 hoursc. 3 hours b. 4 hoursd. 2 hours 98. Nurse Monique is monitoring the effectiveness of a client’s drug therapy. When should the nurse Monique obtain a blood sample to measure the trough drug level? . 1 hour before administering the next dose. b. Immediately before administering the next dose. c. Immediately after administering the next dose. d. 30 minutes after administering the next dose. 99. Nurse May is aware that the main advantage of using a floor stock system is: a. The nurse can implement medication orders quickly. b. The nurse receives input from the pharmacist. c. The system minimizes transcription errors. d. The system reinforces accurate calculations. 100. Nurse Oliver is assessing a client’s abdomen. Which finding should the nurse report as abnormal? a. Dullness over the liver. b.
Bowel sounds occurring every 10 seconds. c. Shifting dullness over the abdomen. d. Vascular sounds heard over the renal arteries. Community Health Nursing and Care of the Mother and Child 1. May arrives at the health care clinic and tells the nurse that her last menstrual period was 9 weeks ago. She also tells the nurse that a home pregnancy test was positive but she began to have mild cramps and is now having moderate vaginal bleeding. During the physical examination of the client, the nurse notes that May has a dilated cervix. The nurse determines that May is experiencing which type of abortion? a. Inevitable b.
Incomplete c. Threatened d. Septic 2. Nurse Reese is reviewing the record of a pregnant client for her first prenatal visit. Which of the following data, if noted on the client’s record, would alert the nurse that the client is at risk for a spontaneous abortion? a. Age 36 years b. History of syphilis c. History of genital herpes d. History of diabetes mellitus 3. Nurse Hazel is preparing to care for a client who is newly admitted to the hospital with a possible diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nurse Hazel develops a plan of care for the client and determines that which of the following nursing actions is the priority? . Monitoring weight b. Assessing for edema c. Monitoring apical pulse d. Monitoring temperature 4. Nurse Oliver is teaching a diabetic pregnant client about nutrition and insulin needs during pregnancy. The nurse determines that the client understands dietary and insulin needs if the client states that the second half of pregnancy require: a. Decreased caloric intake b. Increased caloric intake c. Decreased Insulin d. Increase Insulin 5. Nurse Michelle is assessing a 24 year old client with a diagnosis of hydatidiform mole. She is aware that one of the following is unassociated with this condition? a.
Excessive fetal activity. b. Larger than normal uterus for gestational age. c. Vaginal bleeding d. Elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin. 6. A pregnant client is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH). The clinical findings that would warrant use of the antidote , calcium gluconate is: a. Urinary output 90 cc in 2 hours. b. Absent patellar reflexes. c. Rapid respiratory rate above 40/min. d. Rapid rise in blood pressure. 7. During vaginal examination of Janah who is in labor, the presenting part is at station plus two. Nurse, correctly interprets it as: a.
Presenting part is 2 cm above the plane of the ischial spines. b. Biparietal diameter is at the level of the ischial spines. c. Presenting part in 2 cm below the plane of the ischial spines. d. Biparietal diameter is 2 cm above the ischial spines. 8. A pregnant client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) for induction of labor. A condition that warrant the nurse in-charge to discontinue I. V. infusion of Pitocin is: a. Contractions every 1 . minutes lasting 70-80 seconds. b. Maternal temperature 101. 2 c. Early decelerations in the fetal heart rate. d. Fetal heart rate baseline 140-160 bpm. 9.
Calcium gluconate is being administered to a client with pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH). A nursing action that must be initiated as the plan of care throughout injection of the drug is: a. Ventilator assistance b. CVP readings c. EKG tracings d. Continuous CPR 10. A trial for vaginal delivery after an earlier caesareans, would likely to be given to a gravida, who had: a. First low transverse cesarean was for active herpes type 2 infections; vaginal culture at 39 weeks pregnancy was positive. b. First and second caesareans were for cephalopelvic disproportion. c. First caesarean through a classic incision as a result of evere fetal distress. d. First low transverse caesarean was for breech position. Fetus in this pregnancy is in a vertex presentation. 11. Nurse Ryan is aware that the best initial approach when trying to take a crying toddler’s temperature is: a. Talk to the mother first and then to the toddler. b. Bring extra help so it can be done quickly. c. Encourage the mother to hold the child. d. Ignore the crying and screaming. 12. Baby Tina a 3 month old infant just had a cleft lip and palate repair. What should the nurse do to prevent trauma to operative site? a. Avoid touching the suture line, even when cleaning. . Place the baby in prone position. c. Give the baby a pacifier. d. Place the infant’s arms in soft elbow restraints. 13. Which action should nurse Marian include in the care plan for a 2 month old with heart failure? a. Feed the infant when he cries. b. Allow the infant to rest before feeding. c. Bathe the infant and administer medications before feeding. d. Weigh and bathe the infant before feeding. 14. Nurse Hazel is teaching a mother who plans to discontinue breast feeding after 5 months. The nurse should advise her to include which foods in her infant’s diet? a. Skim milk and baby food. b.
Whole milk and baby food. c. Iron-rich formula only. d. Iron-rich formula and baby food. 15. Mommy Linda is playing with her infant, who is sitting securely alone on the floor of the clinic. The mother hides a toy behind her back and the infant looks for it. The nurse is aware that estimated age of the infant would be: a. 6 months b. 4 months c. 8 months d. 10 months 16. Which of the following is the most prominent feature of public health nursing? a. It involves providing home care to sick people who are not confined in the hospital. b. Services are provided free of charge to people within the catchments area. . The public health nurse functions as part of a team providing a public health nursing services. d. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not curative, services. 17. When the nurse determines whether resources were maximized in implementing Ligtas Tigdas, she is evaluating a. Effectiveness b. Efficiency c. Adequacy d. Appropriateness 18. Vangie is a new B. S. N. graduate. She wants to become a Public Health Nurse. Where should she apply? a. Department of Health b. Provincial Health Office c. Regional Health Office d. Rural Health Unit 19. Tony is aware the Chairman of the Municipal Health Board is: a.
Mayor b. Municipal Health Officer c. Public Health Nurse d. Any qualified physician 20. Myra is the public health nurse in a municipality with a total population of about 20,000. There are 3 rural health midwives among the RHU personnel. How many more midwife items will the RHU need? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. The RHU does not need any more midwife item. 21. According to Freeman and Heinrich, community health nursing is a developmental service. Which of the following best illustrates this statement? a. The community health nurse continuously develops himself personally and professionally. b.
Health education and community organizing are necessary in providing community health services. c. Community health nursing is intended primarily for health promotion and prevention and treatment of disease. d. The goal of community health nursing is to provide nursing services to people in their own places of residence. 22. Nurse Tina is aware that the disease declared through Presidential Proclamation No. 4 as a target for eradication in the Philippines is? a. Poliomyelitis b. Measles c. Rabies d. Neonatal tetanus 23. May knows that the step in community organizing that involves training of potential leaders in the community is: a.
Integration b. Community organization c. Community study d. Core group formation 24. Beth a public health nurse takes an active role in community participation. What is the primary goal of community organizing? a. To educate the people regarding community health problems b. To mobilize the people to resolve community health problems c. To maximize the community’s resources in dealing with health problems. d. To maximize the community’s resources in dealing with health problems. 25. Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of the natural history of disease? a. Pre-pathogenesis b. Pathogenesis c. Prodromal d.
Terminal 26. The nurse is caring for a primigravid client in the labor and delivery area. Which condition would place the client at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? a. Intrauterine fetal death. b. Placenta accreta. c. Dysfunctional labor. d. Premature rupture of the membranes. 27. A fullterm client is in labor. Nurse Betty is aware that the fetal heart rate would be: a. 80 to 100 beats/minute b. 100 to 120 beats/minute c. 120 to 160 beats/minute d. 160 to 180 beats/minute 28. The skin in the diaper area of a 7 month old infant is excoriated and red. Nurse Hazel should instruct the mother to: a.
Change the diaper more often. b. Apply talc powder with diaper changes. c. Wash the area vigorously with each diaper change. d. Decrease the infant’s fluid intake to decrease saturating diapers. 29. Nurse Carla knows that the common cardiac anomalies in children with Down Syndrome (tri-somy 21) is: a. Atrial septal defect b. Pulmonic stenosis c. Ventricular septal defect d. Endocardial cushion defect 30. Malou was diagnosed with severe preeclampsia is now receiving I. V. magnesium sulfate. The adverse effects associated with magnesium sulfate is: a. Anemia b. Decreased urine output c. Hyperreflexia d.
Increased respiratory rate 31. A 23 year old client is having her menstrual period every 2 weeks that last for 1 week. This type of menstrual pattern is bets defined by: a. Menorrhagia b. Metrorrhagia c. Dyspareunia d. Amenorrhea 32. Jannah is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. The critical laboratory result for this client would be: a. Oxygen saturation b. Iron binding capacity c. Blood typing d. Serum Calcium 33. Nurse Gina is aware that the most common condition found during the second-trimester of pregnancy is: a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Respiratory acidosis c. Mastitis d. Physiologic anemia 34.
Nurse Lynette is working in the triage area of an emergency department. She sees that several pediatric clients arrive simultaneously. The client who needs to be treated first is: a. A crying 5 year old child with a laceration on his scalp. b. A 4 year old child with a barking coughs and flushed appearance. c. A 3 year old child with Down syndrome who is pale and asleep in his mother’s arms. d. A 2 year old infant with stridorous breath sounds, sitting up in his mother’s arms and drooling. 35. Maureen in her third trimester arrives at the emergency room with painless vaginal bleeding. Which of the following conditions is suspected? . Placenta previa b. Abruptio placentae c. Premature labor d. Sexually transmitted disease 36. A young child named Richard is suspected of having pinworms. The community nurse collects a stool specimen to confirm the diagnosis. The nurse should schedule the collection of this specimen for: a. Just before bedtime b. After the child has been bathe c. Any time during the day d. Early in the morning 37. In doing a child’s admission assessment, Nurse Betty should be alert to note which signs or symptoms of chronic lead poisoning? a. Irritability and seizures b. Dehydration and diarrhea c. Bradycardia and hypotension d.
Petechiae and hematuria 38. To evaluate a woman’s understanding about the use of diaphragm for family planning, Nurse Trish asks her to explain how she will use the appliance. Which response indicates a need for further health teaching? a. “I should check the diaphragm carefully for holes every time I use it” b. “I may need a different size of diaphragm if I gain or lose weight more than 20 pounds” c. “The diaphragm must be left in place for atleast 6 hours after intercourse” d. “I really need to use the diaphragm and jelly most during the middle of my menstrual cycle”. 39. Hypoxia is a common complication of laryngotracheobronchitis.
Nurse Oliver should frequently assess a child with laryngotracheobronchitis for: a. Drooling b. Muffled voice c. Restlessness d. Low-grade fever 40. How should Nurse Michelle guide a child who is blind to walk to the playroom? a. Without touching the child, talk continuously as the child walks down the hall. b. Walk one step ahead, with the child’s hand on the nurse’s elbow. c. Walk slightly behind, gently guiding the child forward. d. Walk next to the child, holding the child’s hand. 41. When assessing a newborn diagnosed with ductus arteriosus, Nurse Olivia should expect that the child most likely would have an: a.
Loud, machinery-like murmur. b. Bluish color to the lips. c. Decreased BP reading in the upper extremities d. Increased BP reading in the upper extremities. 42. The reason nurse May keeps the neonate in a neutral thermal environment is that when a newborn becomes too cool, the neonate requires: a. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate increases. b. More oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate decreases. c. More oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate increases. d. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate decreases. 43. Before adding potassium to an infant’s I.
V. line, Nurse Ron must be sure to assess whether this infant has: a. Stable blood pressure b. Patant fontanelles c. Moro’s reflex d. Voided 44. Nurse Carla should know that the most common causative factor of dermatitis in infants and younger children is: a. Baby oil b. Baby lotion c. Laundry detergent d. Powder with cornstarch 45. During tube feeding, how far above an infant’s stomach should the nurse hold the syringe with formula? a. 6 inches b. 12 inches c. 18 inches d. 24 inches 46. In a mothers’ class, Nurse Lhynnete discussed childhood diseases such as chicken pox.
Which of the following statements about chicken pox is correct? a. The older one gets, the more susceptible he becomes to the complications of chicken pox. b. A single attack of chicken pox will prevent future episodes, including conditions such as shingles. c. To prevent an outbreak in the community, quarantine may be imposed by health authorities. d. Chicken pox vaccine is best given when there is an impending outbreak in the community. 47. Barangay Pinoy had an outbreak of German measles. To prevent congenital rubella, what is the BEST advice that you can give to women in the first trimester of pregnancy in the barangay Pinoy? . Advice them on the signs of German measles. b. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and movie houses. c. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be given. d. Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin. 48. Myrna a public health nurse knows that to determine possible sources of sexually transmitted infections, the BEST method that may be undertaken is: a. Contact tracing b. Community survey c. Mass screening tests d. Interview of suspects 49. A 33-year old female client came for consultation at the health center with the chief complaint of fever for a week.
Accompanying symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise. A week after the start of fever, the client noted yellowish discoloration of his sclera. History showed that he waded in flood waters about 2 weeks before the onset of symptoms. Based on her history, which disease condition will you suspect? a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Tetanus d. Leptospirosis 50. Mickey a 3-year old client was brought to the health center with the chief complaint of severe diarrhea and the passage of “rice water” stools. The client is most probably suffering from which condition? a. Giardiasis b. Cholera c. Amebiasis d.
Dysentery 51. The most prevalent form of meningitis among children aged 2 months to 3 years is caused by which microorganism? a. Hemophilus influenzae b. Morbillivirus c. Steptococcus pneumoniae d. Neisseria meningitides 52. The student nurse is aware that the pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot and you may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the: a. Nasal mucosa b. Buccal mucosa c. Skin on the abdomen d. Skin on neck 53. Angel was diagnosed as having Dengue fever. You will say that there is slow capillary refill when the color of the nailbed that you pressed does not return within how many seconds? . 3 seconds b. 6 seconds c. 9 seconds d. 10 seconds 54. In Integrated Management of Childhood Illness, the nurse is aware that the severe conditions generally require urgent referral to a hospital. Which of the following severe conditions DOES NOT always require urgent referral to a hospital? a. Mastoiditis b. Severe dehydration c. Severe pneumonia d. Severe febrile disease 55. Myrna a public health nurse will conduct outreach immunization in a barangay Masay with a population of about 1500. The estimated number of infants in the barangay would be: a. 45 infants b. 50 infants c. 55 infants d. 65 infants 56.
The community nurse is aware that the biological used in Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) should NOT be stored in the freezer? a. DPT b. Oral polio vaccine c. Measles vaccine d. MMR 57. It is the most effective way of controlling schistosomiasis in an endemic area? a. Use of molluscicides b. Building of foot bridges c. Proper use of sanitary toilets d. Use of protective footwear, such as rubber boots 58. Several clients is newly admitted and diagnosed with leprosy. Which of the following clients should be classified as a case of multibacillary leprosy? a. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear b. skin lesions, positive slit skin smear c. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear d. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear 59. Nurses are aware that diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of symptoms. Which of the following is an early sign of leprosy? a. Macular lesions b. Inability to close eyelids c. Thickened painful nerves d. Sinking of the nosebridge 60. Marie brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because of fever, started 4 days prior to consultation. In determining malaria risk, what will you do? a. Perform a tourniquet test. b. Ask where the family resides. c. Get a specimen for blood smear. . Ask if the fever is present everyday. 61. Susie brought her 4 years old daughter to the RHU because of cough and colds. Following the IMCI assessment guide, which of the following is a danger sign that indicates the need for urgent referral to a hospital? a. Inability to drink b. High grade fever c. Signs of severe dehydration d. Cough for more than 30 days 62. Jimmy a 2-year old child revealed “baggy pants”. As a nurse, using the IMCI guidelines, how will you manage Jimmy? a. Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement. b. Coordinate with the social worker to enroll the child in a feeding program. c.
Make a teaching plan for the mother, focusing on menu planning for her child. d. Assess and treat the child for health problems like infections and intestinal parasitism. 63. Gina is using Oresol in the management of diarrhea of her 3-year old child. She asked you what to do if her child vomits. As a nurse you will tell her to: a. Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further assessment. b. Bring the child to the health center for intravenous fluid therapy. c. Bring the child to the health center for assessment by the physician. d. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly. 64.
Nikki a 5-month old infant was brought by his mother to the health center because of diarrhea for 4 to 5 times a day. Her skin goes back slowly after a skin pinch and her eyes are sunken. Using the IMCI guidelines, you will classify this infant in which category? a. No signs of dehydration b. Some dehydration c. Severe dehydration d. The data is insufficient. 65. Chris a 4-month old infant was brought by her mother to the health center because of cough. His respiratory rate is 42/minute. Using the Integrated Management of Child Illness (IMCI) guidelines of assessment, his breathing is considered as: a. Fast b. Slow c. Normal d. Insignificant 6. Maylene had just received her 4th dose of tetanus toxoid. She is aware that her baby will have protection against tetanus for a. 1 year b. 3 years c. 5 years d. Lifetime 67. Nurse Ron is aware that unused BCG should be discarded after how many hours of reconstitution? a. 2 hours b. 4 hours c. 8 hours d. At the end of the day 68. The nurse explains to a breastfeeding mother that breast milk is sufficient for all of the baby’s nutrient needs only up to: a. 5 months b. 6 months c. 1 year d. 2 years 69. Nurse Ron is aware that the gestational age of a conceptus that is considered viable (able to live outside the womb) is: a. 8 weeks b. 2 weeks c. 24 weeks d. 32 weeks 70. When teaching parents of a neonate the proper position for the neonate’s sleep, the nurse Patricia stresses the importance of placing the neonate on his back to reduce the risk of which of the following? a. Aspiration b. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) c. Suffocation d. Gastroesophageal reflux (GER) 71. Which finding might be seen in baby James a neonate suspected of having an infection? a. Flushed cheeks b. Increased temperature c. Decreased temperature d. Increased activity level 72. Baby Jenny who is small-for-gestation is at increased risk during the transitional period for which complication? . Anemia probably due to chronic fetal hyposia b. Hyperthermia due to decreased glycogen stores c. Hyperglycemia due to decreased glycogen stores d. Polycythemia probably due to chronic fetal hypoxia 73. Marjorie has just given birth at 42 weeks’ gestation. When the nurse assessing the neonate, which physical finding is expected? a. A sleepy, lethargic baby b. Lanugo covering the body c. Desquamation of the epidermis d. Vernix caseosa covering the body 74. After reviewing the Myrna’s maternal history of magnesium sulfate during labor, which condition would nurse Richard anticipate as a potential problem in the neonate? . Hypoglycemia b. Jitteriness c. Respiratory depression d. Tachycardia 75. Which symptom would indicate the Baby Alexandra was adapting appropriately to extra-uterine life without difficulty? a. Nasal flaring b. Light audible grunting c. Respiratory rate 40 to 60 breaths/minute d. Respiratory rate 60 to 80 breaths/minute 76. When teaching umbilical cord care for Jennifer a new mother, the nurse Jenny would include which information? a. Apply peroxide to the cord with each diaper change b. Cover the cord with petroleum jelly after bathing c. Keep the cord dry and open to air d.
Wash the cord with soap and water each day during a tub bath. 77. Nurse John is performing an assessment on a neonate. Which of the following findings is considered common in the healthy neonate? a. Simian crease b. Conjunctival hemorrhage c. Cystic hygroma d. Bulging fontanelle 78. Dr. Esteves decides to artificially rupture the membranes of a mother who is on labor. Following this procedure, the nurse Hazel checks the fetal heart tones for which the following reasons? a. To determine fetal well-being. b. To assess for prolapsed cord c. To assess fetal position d. To prepare for an imminent delivery. 9. Which of the following would be least likely to indicate anticipated bonding behaviors by new parents? a. The parents’ willingness to touch and hold the new born. b. The parent’s expression of interest about the size of the new born. c. The parents’ indication that they want to see the newborn. d. The parents’ interactions with each other. 80. Following a precipitous delivery, examination of the client’s vagina reveals a fourth-degree laceration. Which of the following would be contraindicated when caring for this client? a. Applying cold to limit edema during the first 12 to 24 hours. b.
Instructing the client to use two or more peripads to cushion the area. c. Instructing the client on the use of sitz baths if ordered. d. Instructing the client about the importance of perineal (kegel) exercises. 81. A pregnant woman accompanied by her husband, seeks admission to the labor and delivery area. She states that she’s in labor and says she attended the facility clinic for prenatal care. Which question should the nurse Oliver ask her first? a. “Do you have any chronic illnesses? ” b. “Do you have any allergies? ” c. “What is your expected due date? ” d. “Who will be with you during labor? ” 82.
A neonate begins to gag and turns a dusky color. What should the nurse do first? a. Calm the neonate. b. Notify the physician. c. Provide oxygen via face mask as ordered d. Aspirate the neonate’s nose and mouth with a bulb syringe. 83. When a client states that her “water broke,” which of the following actions would be inappropriate for the nurse to do? a. Observing the pooling of straw-colored fluid. b. Checking vaginal discharge with nitrazine paper. c. Conducting a bedside ultrasound for an amniotic fluid index. d. Observing for flakes of vernix in the vaginal discharge. 84. A baby girl is born 8 weeks premature.
At birth, she has no spontaneous respirations but is successfully resuscitated. Within several hours she develops respiratory grunting, cyanosis, tachypnea, nasal flaring, and retractions. She’s diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome, intubated, and placed on a ventilator. Which nursing action should be included in the baby’s plan of care to prevent retinopathy of prematurity? a. Cover his eyes while receiving oxygen. b. Keep her body temperature low. c. Monitor partial pressure of oxygen (Pao2) levels. d. Humidify the oxygen. 85. Which of the following is normal newborn calorie intake? a. 10 to 130 calories per kg. b. 30 to 40 calories per lb of body weight. c. At least 2 ml per feeding d. 90 to 100 calories per kg 86. Nurse John is knowledgeable that usually individual twins will grow appropriately and at the same rate as singletons until how many weeks? a. 16 to 18 weeksc. 30 to 32 weeks b. 18 to 22 weeksd. 38 to 40 weeks 87. Which of the following classifications applies to monozygotic twins for whom the cleavage of the fertilized ovum occurs more than 13 days after fertilization? a. conjoined twins b. diamniotic dichorionic twins c. diamniotic monochorionic twin d. monoamniotic monochorionic twins 88.
Tyra experienced painless vaginal bleeding has just been diagnosed as having a placenta previa. Which of the following procedures is usually performed to diagnose placenta previa? a. Amniocentesis b. Digital or speculum examination c. External fetal monitoring d. Ultrasound 89. Nurse Arnold knows that the following changes in respiratory functioning during pregnancy is considered normal: a. Increased tidal volume b. Increased expiratory volume c. Decreased inspiratory capacity d. Decreased oxygen consumption 90. Emily has gestational diabetes and it is usually managed by which of the following therapy? a. Diet b. Long-acting insulin . Oral hypoglycemic d. Oral hypoglycemic drug and insulin 91. Magnesium sulfate is given to Jemma with preeclampsia to prevent which of the following condition? a. Hemorrhage b. Hypertension c. Hypomagnesemia d. Seizure 92. Cammile with sickle cell anemia has an increased risk for having a sickle cell crisis during pregnancy. Aggressive management of a sickle cell crisis includes which of the following measures? a. Antihypertensive agents b. Diuretic agents c. I. V. fluids d. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain 93. Which of the following drugs is the antidote for magnesium toxicity? a. Calcium gluconate (Kalcinate) b.
Hydralazine (Apresoline) c. Naloxone (Narcan) d. Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) 94. Marlyn is screened for tuberculosis during her first prenatal visit. An intradermal injection of purified protein derivative (PPD) of the tuberculin bacilli is given. She is considered to have a positive test for which of the following results? a. An indurated wheal under 10 mm in diameter appears in 6 to 12 hours. b. An indurated wheal over 10 mm in diameter appears in 48 to 72 hours. c. A flat circumcised area under 10 mm in diameter appears in 6 to 12 hours. d. A flat circumcised area over 10 mm in diameter appears in 48 to 72 hours. 5. Dianne, 24 year-old is 27 weeks’ pregnant arrives at her physician’s office with complaints of fever, nausea, vomiting, malaise, unilateral flank pain, and costovertebral angle tenderness. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely? a. Asymptomatic bacteriuria b. Bacterial vaginosis c. Pyelonephritis d. Urinary tract infection (UTI) 96. Rh isoimmunization in a pregnant client develops during which of the following conditions? a. Rh-positive maternal blood crosses into fetal blood, stimulating fetal antibodies. b. Rh-positive fetal blood crosses into maternal blood, stimulating maternal antibodies. . Rh-negative fetal blood crosses into maternal blood, stimulating maternal antibodies. d. Rh-negative maternal blood crosses into fetal blood, stimulating fetal antibodies. 97. To promote comfort during labor, the nurse John advises a client to assume certain positions and avoid others. Which position may cause maternal hypotension and fetal hypoxia? a. Lateral position b. Squatting position c. Supine position d. Standing position 98. Celeste who used heroin during her pregnancy delivers a neonate. When assessing the neonate, the nurse Lhynnette expects to find: a. Lethargy 2 days after birth. b.
Irritability and poor sucking. c. A flattened nose, small eyes, and thin lips. d. Congenital defects such as limb anomalies. 99. The uterus returns to the pelvic cavity in which of the following time frames? a. 7th to 9th day postpartum. b. 2 weeks postpartum. c. End of 6th week postpartum. d. When the lochia changes to alba. 100. Maureen, a primigravida client, age 20, has just completed a difficult, forceps-assisted delivery of twins. Her labor was unusually long and required oxytocin (Pitocin) augmentation. The nurse who’s caring for her should stay alert for: a. Uterine inversion b. Uterine atony c.
Uterine involution d. Uterine discomfort NURSING PRACTICE III Care of Clients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations TEST III – Care of Clients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations 1. Nurse Michelle should know that the drainage is normal 4 days after a sigmoid colostomy when the stool is: a. Green liquid b. Solid formed c. Loose, bloody d. Semiformed 2. Where would nurse Kristine place the call light for a male client with a right-sided brain attack and left homonymous hemianopsia? a. On the client’s right side b. On the client’s left side c. Directly in front of the client d. Where the client like 3.
A male client is admitted to the emergency department following an accident. What are the first nursing actions of the nurse? a. Check respiration, circulation, neurological response. b. Align the spine, check pupils, and check for hemorrhage. c. Check respirations, stabilize spine, and check circulation. d. Assess level of consciousness and circulation. 4. In evaluating the effect of nitroglycerin, Nurse Arthur should know that it reduces preload and relieves angina by: a. Increasing contractility and slowing heart rate. b. Increasing AV conduction and heart rate. c. Decreasing contractility and oxygen consumption. . Decreasing venous return through vasodilation. 5. Nurse Patricia finds a female client who is post-myocardial infarction (MI) slumped on the side rails of the bed and unresponsive to shaking or shouting. Which is the nurse next action? a. Call for help and note the time. b. Clear the airway c. Give two sharp thumps to the precordium, and check the pulse. d. Administer two quick blows. 6. Nurse Monett is caring for a client recovering from gastro-intestinal bleeding. The nurse should: a. Plan care so the client can receive 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep each night. b. Monitor vital signs every 2 hours. c.
Make sure that the client takes food and medications at prescribed intervals. d. Provide milk every 2 to 3 hours. 7. A male client was on warfarin (Coumadin) before admission, and has been receiving heparin I. V. for 2 days. The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is 68 seconds. What should Nurse Carla do? a. Stop the I. V. infusion of heparin and notify the physician. b. Continue treatment as ordered. c. Expect the warfarin to increase the PTT. d. Increase the dosage, because the level is lower than normal. 8. A client undergone ileostomy, when should the drainage appliance be applied to the stoma? a. 24 hours later, when edema has subsided. . In the operating room. c. After the ileostomy begin to function. d. When the client is able to begin self-care procedures. 9. A client undergone spinal anesthetic, it will be important that the nurse immediately position the client in: a. On the side, to prevent obstruction of airway by tongue. b. Flat on back. c. On the back, with knees flexed 15 degrees. d. Flat on the stomach, with the head turned to the side. 10. While monitoring a male client several hours after a motor vehicle accident, which assessment data suggest increasing intracranial pressure? a. Blood pressure is decreased from 160/90 to 110/70. . Pulse is increased from 87 to 95, with an occasional skipped beat. c. The client is oriented when aroused from sleep, and goes back to sleep immediately. d. The client refuses dinner because of anorexia. 11. Mrs. Cruz, 80 years old is diagnosed with pneumonia. Which of the following symptoms may appear first? a. Altered mental status and dehydration b. Fever and chills c. Hemoptysis and Dyspnea d. Pleuritic chest pain and cough 12. A male client has active tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following symptoms will be exhibit? a. Chest and lower back pain b. Chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis c.
Fever of more than 104°F (40°C) and nausea d. Headache and photophobia 13. Mark, a 7-year-old client is brought to the emergency department. He’s tachypneic and afebrile and has a respiratory rate of 36 breaths/minute and has a nonproductive cough. He recently had a cold. Form this history; the client may have which of the following conditions? a. Acute asthma b. Bronchial pneumonia c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) d. Emphysema 14. Marichu was given morphine sulfate for pain. She is sleeping and her respiratory rate is 4 breaths/minute. If action isn’t taken qui